JFS MQF Fire Support Team (FIST) Certification Practice Exam

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• What is the process of measurement of a feature or location on the earth to determine an absolute latitude, longitude, and elevation?
• In the context of call for fire, what does the term “Duration” refer to?
• _____ is the planning and executing of fires to ensure targets are adequately covered by a suitable weapon or group of weapons.
• What is a target identified too late for inclusion in deliberate targeting?
• What type of target corresponds with number AA1015?
• Do Army Attack Aviation or AC-130 engagements require terminal attack control?
• Which of the following aircraft can execute both air-to-air and air-to-ground operations?
• If the registration point is equidistant between two sets of rounds, what is the appropriate range refinement?
• What type of target is a planned target scheduled for prosecution at a specified time?
• Which illumination pattern would you use to illuminate an area with practically no shadows or dark spots?
• What is the DA form used for the Target List Worksheet?
• If the PER is >= 25 meters, how many rounds are typically spotted along the observer-target line during impact registration?
• Which of the following is not one of the five parts of a terrain sketch?
• In fire support terminology, what does the term "Correction" refer to?
• What precedes "Gameplan" in the CAS execution template steps?
• What kind of line facilitates air-to-surface lethal attack of targets while integrating other fire measures?
• What net provides a means for the control of aircraft?
• If target length, or length and width are given, what must the observer also provide?
• What does the warning order consist of?
• In combat identification, which step is NOT included among the standard phases?
• What is the objective of the time portion of the precision registration?
• What type of identification is derived from target characteristics and various recognition techniques?
• Which of the following can be sent separately or along with the MTO?
• Who is responsible for all aspects of joint fires planning, prioritization, and execution?
• Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for an unfired target report?
• Which of the following options is NOT a use of illumination?
• Who is in charge of the FIST and is the principal fire support advisor to the commander when attached to or supporting a company or troop?
• Which option best describes the purpose of Final Protective Fires?
• What is the Circular Error for CAT II TLE category?
• What is the primary goal of conducting an impact registration?
• During a CAS engagement, what is essential for ensuring a successful outcome?
• Which of the following terms refers to the concept of planning to minimize friendly casualties during operations?
• Which of the following does NOT contribute to target location capabilities?
• What is the primary goal of any indirect firing unit when targeting?
• In the range spotting sequence, what does "Doubtful" signify?
• What term refers to the observer's determination of the location of the burst with respect to the adjusting point?
• Which radar zone monitors enemy territory to detect and report any weapons ahead of all acquisitions except critical friendly zones?
• What role does the JFO typically serve during a CAS mission?
• What is a defensive operation that concentrates on the destruction or defeat of the enemy through a decisive attack by a striking force?
• True / False: Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; during O - Observation ensure all team members are proficient in friendly or adversary forces recognition.
• _____ is the authority to control the maneuver of and grant weapons release clearance to attacking aircraft.
• What information about the target's protection should be included?
• _____ normally produces the specific effect on a target with the minimum expenditure of ammunition.
• A _____ consists of a number of planned targets of a similar nature that are planned for sequential attack.
• Who represents fire support for the maneuver platoon?
• True or False: In a shift from known point mission, the range shift relates to the observer's location.
• When describing a target, what should be included regarding its action?
• Mortar registration procedures are identical to the impact registration procedures for artillery. What is the range bracket that needs to be split before sending corrections to the FDC?
• If angle T is 500 mils or greater and the observer is getting more of a correction than asked for, what should the observer consider doing?
• Who is the senior field artillery commander advising the maneuver commander?
• What adjustment technique is most suitable to achieve responsive fire when the observer is experienced?
• What brevity term is used to indicate the discontinuation of a stated activity?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M777 series 155mm howitzer w/M232?
• Which term refers to the action of ensuring that all fire support resources are fully integrated into the operation?
• When executing Close Air Support (CAS) without a qualified individual, what is the appropriate information to give to the aircrew?
• What brevity term refers to FRIENDLY air-to-surface missile launch?
• What does it mean if a round has an unobserved spotting?
• What command relationship involves authority limited to detailed direction and control within the operational area?
• When should the observer-target direction be sent again?
• Who has the responsibility to integrate fire support with the scheme of maneuver?
• When "danger close" is announced, what must be passed to the attacking aircraft?
• When converting degrees to mils, you must multiply the number of degrees by what to determine mils?
• What type of control is used when the JTAC/FAC (A) requires control of individual attacks but cannot visually acquire the attacking aircraft or the target?
• What additional information is sent along with the warning order in the first transmission of the naval surface fire support (NSFS) call for fire?
• When adjusting illumination rounds, what are HOB corrections sent in multiples of?
• What facilitates the efficient use of airspace for air operations and provides safeguards for friendly forces?
• In terms of Vertical Shift, how is the difference communicated?
• Which liaison is provided by the Army component to the COMAFFOR in the joint air operations center scenario?
• What type of list includes valid military targets that have restrictions placed upon their engagement?
• Which forward observer control option is best for a highly trained FO team calling for fire from available fire support assets?
• Which line indicates the type of mark used in the 9-Line CAS Brief?
• What brevity term is used when marking a target by infrared (IR) pointer?
• What brevity term indicates that the laser designator system is inoperative?
• Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for a new target report?
• Which aircraft sensor posture is when the lead aircraft's responsibility is the friendly force, and the wing aircraft is primarily responsible for scanning the objective?
• What does a range spotting of "Short" indicate?
• Which entity is the senior agency within the Marine Corps Command and Control System?
• What spotting would you make if you receive a Splash call and after 5 seconds the round impact is neither seen nor heard?
• Which term refers to the probability of a strike within a certain radius during artillery operations?
• Which entity is typically located with the joint fires element at the joint special operations task force?
• What measures do commanders use to define lines of responsibility for friendly forces?
• True or False: The sequence of spottings is height of burst, range, and deviation.
• What term describes unintentional or incidental injury or damage to non-target objects or persons?
• In a target description, what measurement is required for a rectangular target?
• For Excalibur calls for fire, what is the minimum grid location expression required?
• Which of the following is not among the four Fire Support functions?
• At what point is a gun-target line considered hot?
• Which brevity term acknowledges sighting a specified reference point, either visually or via sensor?
• When must a temporary No-Fire Area be established in a CAS scenario?
• What may result from failing to select proper shell fuze combinations?
• Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; identify the item that is NOT part of Location.
• What is the initial height of burst for all 105mm illumination rounds?
• What is a synchronized combined arms activity under the control of the maneuver commander conducted to allow maneuver through an obstacle?
• What integrates the fires warfighting function into operations?
• True / False: The four types of smoke are obscuring, marking, incendiary, and deception.
• What brevity term refers to the sighting of a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position?
• What is a type of offensive operation that usually follows a successful attack and is designed to disorganize the enemy in depth?
• What is the HOB correction when one airburst and three graze bursts are spotted?
• Which range of wind speed is best for the production of smoke screens?
• Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what is the number one priority for the team?
• How many rounds are fired when the 50 meter range bracket has been established and data is shifted 25 meters in the opposite direction?
• What range spotting is given when a round impacts on the registration point during the impact portion of a registration?
• Which of the following is NOT a remark but a restriction in the CAS brief?
• What is the air liaison unit that is co-located with ground maneuver units and operates under the ASOC?
• If the observer wishes to control the time of delivery of fire, which method of control would they utilize?
• Which specialized Army element serves as the senior Army operational commander's liaison with the air component?
• Which of the following describes a Restrictive Fire Area?
• What command relationship involves units being placed in an organization in a relatively permanent manner?
• Which FIST employment option ensures most platoons in companies or troops receive a forward observer?
• The objective of an impact registration is to achieve spottings of what along the observer-target line?
• Which illumination pattern is fired perpendicular to the observer target line?
• What is the minimum range correction for smoke?
• How many sub-munitions are in the M4831A1 DPICM?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M982 Excalibur projectile?
• What must be considered when selecting targets and techniques of fire according to regulations?
• Which rotary-wing attack tactic is delivered while the aircraft is at altitude and in descending forward flight?
• What fuze can be added to 155mm Artillery M795 HE and M549A1 HERA rounds to boost precision?
• A _____ consists of two or more targets on which fire is desired simultaneously.
• What assessment is made when rounds are spotted and appropriately adjusted during an impact registration?
• What adjustment technique involves the observer making small adjustments to minimize collateral damage?
• What is the rate of descent for M485A2 illumination rounds?
• True or False: The call for fire format is identical for Army Attack Aviation and Special Operations Forces (SOF) gunships.
• For effective CAS operations, which of the following is crucial for the ground force commander?
• How is a registration typically initiated?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M120/M120A1 120mm mortar using the M929 WP round?
• Which adjustment technique is preferred when precise adjustment is required?
• What is the proper procedure for labeling a linear target with an assigned target number?
• Which deviation spotting indicates that a round impacted short of the adjusting point?
• What is a specific boundary established to prohibit fires or their effects from crossing between friendly forces?
• What defines a target that has actions scheduled at a certain time?
• What process prioritizes targets and determines the appropriate fires for mission planning?
• The primary role of the Field Artillery is to do which of the following?
• Which measure represents a fixed line that assists in maneuver operations?
• Which mission type is appropriate when engaging a target that has taken friendly elements under fire?
• What correction is needed before a control correction during immediate suppression?
• Which of the following is NOT a reason for MARK to be included in the method of engagement?
• What tactical mission task causes a temporary degradation in the performance of a force?
• What is an exact location at sea from which a fire support ship delivers fires?
• Which aircraft is capable of carrying 20mm, 2.75-inch rockets, AGM-65, HARM, and SDBs?
• What type of operation orients on the force or facility being protected?
• How many lines are there in the Army attack aviation RW 5-Line Request?
• Which type of fire is most suitable for immediate response to enemy contact?
• Using the flash to bang method, what is the multiplier for converting seconds to meters for distance estimation?
• Which step involves confirming the available firepower in the CAS execution template?
• During joint operations, which resource is vital for effective communication between air and ground forces?
• What is the proper command for an Excalibur call for fire after achieving a nadir?
• What term describes the distance within which the ground troops can safely operate without risk from fire support?
• In joint fires planning, what is the primary concern of a Joint Fire Support Officer?
• Linear and rectangular targets require orientation in terms of direction. What else must the observer send in the third transmission of the call for fire?
• Which adjustment method involves a single round for a quick response but needs an experienced observer?
• Under what circumstance would you use the "Unobserved" spotting?
• What are the two core competencies of Field Artillery in Army operations?
• What type of target, if lost, will significantly impact the success of the friendly course of action?
• What is a known target in the operational environment upon which actions are planned using deliberate targeting?
• Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for an ammunition remaining report?
• Which line in the 9-Line CAS Brief specifies the target description?
• What is the main purpose of a Free Fire Area?
• What range refinement is needed if the registration point is nearer the last rounds fired?
• If an Excalibur projectile does not acquire adequate GPS signal, what happens to the round?
• How many sub-munitions are in the M864 DPICM?
• What type of control is used when the JTAC/FAC (A) provides clearance for multiple attacks with specific restrictions?
• Which of the following is a method of control from ATP 3-09.30?
• Which command relationship involves units being an essential part of a military organization?
• The standard communication format used when soliciting CAS is known as what?
• What is the impact of the HOB adjustments on the overall effectiveness of precision fire?
• What provides immediate indirect and joint fires to neutralize enemy indirect fire weapons?
• Army operations designed to protect aviation assets near the forward line of own troops are known as what?
• In a CAS operation, who is responsible for the clearance to engage?
• What brevity term serves as a warning to inbound aircraft that the LZ, HLZ, or DZ is experiencing enemy activity above the prebriefed risk tolerance?
• How would you record a round spotted 40 mils to the right of the observer-target line?
• Which term is used to mark the area for illumination during a mission?
• Which employment option allows for a more decentralized fire support operation?
• If an observer wants HE and then WP, what term would they use in the call for fire?
• What is the initial height of burst for all 120mm illumination rounds?
• Which munition minimizes collateral damage when utilizing the 120mm mortar?
• What is the purpose of the target description in a call for fire?
• What is a planned target determined using deliberate targeting and triggered upon detection?
• Final protective fires may be any distance from the friendly position but is normally within _____ to _____ meters of friendly positions.
• JTACs/FAC(A)s should respond to readbacks of a CAS brief with which of the following?
• In target marking, which component is essential for ensuring accurate fire support?
• What is the purpose of a tactical mission task that renders enemy forces incapable of interfering with operations?
• How should an observer communicate positive control during a SOF Gunship engagement?
• What are the danger close distances for artillery and mortars / 5-inch naval guns and TLAM?
• What is an operation in which a force moves forward or rearward through another force's combat positions with the intention of moving into or out of contact with the enemy?
• The method of engagement consists of which of the following?
• Which rotary-wing movement technique is used when enemy contact is remote?
• How should danger close and cancel danger close be addressed when performing corrections?
• During a quick smoke CFF using shell smoke (HC), you continue to use HE in adjustment until which bracket is split?
• Aside from tactical considerations, the selection of targets and munitions must comply with what?
• What is a type of offensive operation designed to develop the situation and establish or regain contact?
• In registration, deviation refinement is determined by adding the deviation spottings of the rounds establishing the two over and two short. Then what does the observer do to get an average deviation?
• What is the first correction that should be sent in a series of corrections during a call for fire?
• If the registration point is nearer the pair of rounds at the opposite end of the bracket, what does the observer determine the range refinement to be?
• Which task focuses on combining various fire support assets into operations?
• What does the "T" in TEFACHR represent?
• What is the primary purpose of the CAS 9-line brief?
• True / False: Once a target number is assigned, the observer should begin each correction with the observer identification, followed by the target number, and ending with the desired correction.
• What does a Phase Line typically indicate in military operations?
• What is a type of defensive operation that involves organized movement away from the enemy?
• What is the minimum deviation or range correction made while adjusting illumination?
• In a laser grid method during an adjust fire mission, how are adjustments sent?
• Which brevity term indicates an object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor?
• What is a list of objects considered protected from military operations under international law?
• Which vehicle employment option positions the FSO in the fire support vehicle?
• Which branch of service employs its attack rotary wing aviation primarily as a CAS platform?
• What is the significance of a terrain sketch in military operations?
• What is a possible use of the term "Cease Loading" in fire support?
• What term is used by a joint terminal attack controller when granting weapons release clearance during a Type 1 and 2 control?
• What term grants weapons release clearance to an aircraft or flight to attack targets within the parameters prescribed by the JTAC/FAC(A)?
• Which option is NOT considered a method for responsive fires?
• What task is aimed at rendering a force incapable of achieving its objectives?
• What is a type of offensive operation that destroys or defeats enemy forces, seizes and secures terrain, or both?
• How many phases are there in the joint targeting cycle?
• Which acronym stands for size, activity, location, time, and remarks in the context of a BDA report?
• What command is given once the observer achieves a measurable airburst during precision registration?
• When planning an FPF with 8 guns of 155mm Howitzers, what is the length and width in meters?
• What rotary-wing attack tactic is performed when the aircraft is in level, forward flight?
• What is the initial height of burst in meters for the M485A2 illumination round?
• As an observer, which of the five requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for effect are you solely responsible for?
• What is the last correction in the sequence of 15 corrections to be sent during a CFF?
• In marking a target, what type of target is labeled with number AA1000 and described as ENY Dismounts?
• What task/effect is aimed at upsetting an enemy's formation or tempo to cause them to attack in a piecemeal fashion?
• How wide, in meters, would you use a quick smoke mission to obscure areas?
• How far away from the target should an auxiliary adjusting point be?
• Which employment option is responsible for maximizing the capability of communication and support in fire missions?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M224/M224A1 60mm mortar?
• What type of target is known to exist and created effects that support the commander's objectives?
• Which entity processes air support requests, coordinates flight sorties, and manages aircraft in assigned airspace?
• What is the approximate length and width in meters for an FPF fired with 4 tubes of 120mm Mortars?
• What step comes after "Attack" in the CAS execution template?
• What FDC command will the FO receive after sending a CFF as "DNL" or after establishing a priority target?
• What is the outcome of not acting on a target detected in time?
• When two airbursts and two graze bursts are spotted, what is the HOB correction?
• What brevity term signifies the sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position?
• Which type of smoke is a smoke curtain used on the battlefield between threat observation points and friendly units?
• What is the minimum deviation correction for smoke?
• True or False: The FDC announces SPLASH to the observer 5 seconds prior to round impact.
• Which aircraft sensor posture is when both the lead and wing aircraft focus on the objective?
• Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; identify the item that is NOT part of Targeting.
• What details must the observer provide in a target description?
• In the context of HOB spottings, what does "Air" signify?
• What would be the correct range spotting if you observe a round impact beyond the adjusting point?
• What must the observer specify in the target location portion of an Excalibur call for fire?
• What is the term for characterizing detected objects in the operational environment to support engagement decisions?
• What does the letter "A" in the FA-PARCA acronym stand for?
• What can JFOs provide for developing targeting data?
• What is the last step in the CAS execution template?
• What identification is primarily concerned with determining the status and type of identified targets?
• Which forward observer control option requires FO to contact the FIST for each call for fire?
• What type of control requires the JTAC/FAC (A) to visually acquire the attacking aircraft and the target for each attack?
• Which type of munition corrects for ballistic conditions using guidance and control?
• What is included in Line 3 of the Army attack aviation RW 5-Line Request?
• What is an area assigned to an artillery unit where individual artillery systems can maneuver to enhance their survivability?
• A fire support coordination measure that requires coordination with affected commanders before engagement is known as what?
• What is the main focus of the "A" within the FA-PARCA memory aid?
• What method of control indicates the observer cannot see the target due to weather or terrain?
• Vertical shift is communicated to the target location if the difference is greater than or equal to how many meters?
• What maneuver control measure is assigned by the maritime commander to deliver joint fire support?
• Which method is NOT included in target location methods?
• What is a target, based on either time or importance, that takes precedence over all other fires for the designated unit or element?
• True or False: In a polar plot mission, the FDC only requires the target location.
• What type of round can provide precision targeting for 155mm artillery?
• Occupying an observation post using SLOCTOP; what does the P stand for?
• What is described as an operation that defeats an enemy attack and develops conditions for further operations?
• Which aircraft is specifically designed for close air support with precision strike capabilities?
• In a polar plot mission, what term indicates the vertical distance to the target?
• What type of mission is fired on planned targets and includes a duration for firing?
• What must be provided for a circular target during its description?
• Which control option assigns a particular fire support asset to a forward observer?
• Which of the following describes a spotting of "LINE"?
• Which area allows any weapon system to fire without additional coordination with the establishing HQ?
• What defines the area in which engaging in fire must be coordinated with affected commanders?
• Using a declinated M2 or a lensatic compass on a stable platform, the observer can measure direction to an accuracy of how many mils?
• What does the letter "F" in the memory aid FA-PARCA represent?
• Which method of control specifies the time, in minutes and seconds, post hack statement when rounds will impact?
• What is CAS augmented by machine-to-machine exchange of situational awareness and targeting messages that can include CAS briefs?
• What process involves fixing, observing, and reporting the location and movement of friendly forces?
• Which vehicle employment option maximizes assets available to the battalion or brigade commander but might degrade the supported unit?
• What does the term "shack" indicate in a CAS environment?
• In a CAS context, what does the acronym ACA stand for?
• What method of engagement involves a sequence of shells being fired on the target area?
• What four items does the MTO consist of?
• What UAS can be equipped with GBU and Hellfire ordnance?
• What brevity term is a call to inbound aircraft that indicates enemy activity below the prebriefed risk tolerance?
• What describes the lines used to facilitate movement and maneuver of friendly forces?
• For successful JFO employment, is it imperative that the JTAC and JFO participate in the planning process?
• What is a line beyond which surface-to-surface direct fire and indirect fire can be fired without additional coordination?
• In Close Air Support terminology, what is the meaning of "danger close"?
• Which brevity term indicates acquisition of laser designation or that the platform is laser spot tracker (LST) capable?
• Using the following information, what should the observer send to the FDC as their deviation refinement for a registration? OT Factor of 2; Spottings of +7R, +15R, -5L, and +3R.
• What does line 8 of the JFO target brief refer to?
• _____ is executed in support of friendly forces in close enemy contact or against enemy forces out of contact with friendly forces.
• When is the method of attack stated by the joint terminal attack controller (JTAC)/forward air controller (airborne) (FAC(A))?
• Which type of operation is characterized by the continuous offensive action against an enemy?
• What spotting would you make if you hear the impact of a round but are unable to visually acquire it after a CFF call?
• What term describes the detection, identification, and location of a target allowing effective employment of capabilities?
• A boundary that prohibits fires from crossing is established between what?
• What is Line 1 for the 9-Line CAS Brief?
• Azimuth is a horizontal angle measured clockwise from a north base line that could be?
• Which type of smoke is placed on or near the threat to suppress threat observers?
• When labeling a target using number AA1010, what type of target is being referenced?
• What is a criterion used to assess changes in system behavior or capability that measures the attainment of an end state?
• Personnel authorized to perform JFO duties must be?
• What term defines the systematic evaluation of a target area prior to conducting an air strike?
• What area prohibits radar from reporting acquisitions and is normally placed around friendly weapon systems?
• When adjusting the sheaf for mortars during a registration, what does the observer base the determination for the method of fire on?
• Which is a benefit of having a coordinated fire support plan?
• In a military engagement context, what does "clearance to fire" signify?
• What is the specific targeting of enemy indirect fire systems before they engage friendly forces?
• True or False: Hand measurements of angular deviation are the same for all observers.
• What additional line of the CAS 9-line is a mandatory readback when working with NATO forces?
• _____ can support or conduct close combat attack, CAS, strike coordination and reconnaissance, AI, and other joint fires missions.
• Which of the following methods can be employed for integrating and deconflicting aircraft and surface fires?
• Which of the following elements is NOT included in a target description?
• During an illumination mission, your round burns on the ground for 13 seconds. What is your HOB correction if the rate of descent is 5 meters per second?
• Which method of control allows the observer to specify the specific time rounds impact on the target?
• Which command relationship defines the authority to command and employ forces to accomplish a mission?
• What is a line that delineates surface areas to facilitate coordination and deconfliction of operations between adjacent units?
• In a BDA report for a CAS engagement, which of the following is essential to include?
• True or False: After receiving the army attack aviation call for fire, aircrews must identify the location of both friendly elements and the target before engagement.
• In terms of safety and effectiveness, what is a key attribute of Excalibur projectiles?
• Observers equipped with a map, binoculars, and compass typically have a mean target location error of about how many meters?
• Which role is NOT typically associated with the Fires and Effects Coordination Center?
• Which spotting indicated when a round's location cannot be determined by sight or sound?
• When three airbursts and one graze burst are spotted, what is the HOB correction during precision registration?
• Which branch is specific to the Battlefield Coordination Line?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the TEFACHR acronym?
• What task is a tactical mission that physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective?
• During an illumination mission, if the flare burns out 60 mils above the ground and the OT factor is 2, what correction should the Observer send for HOB?
• What is the critical first step when planning for a Final Protective Fire?
• What is the maximum range, in meters, of the M252/M252A1 81mm mortar?
• How does field artillery contribute to land operations effectively?
• What is the link between the air support operations center and subordinate tactical air control parties for immediate air support requests?
• What operation is necessary when enemy forces are regrouping after an engagement?
• What is a criterion used to assess friendly actions that is tied to measuring task accomplishment?
• When utilizing a laser range finder, how precise can the distance measurement be?
• Which entity within the Theater Air Control System allocates resources and tasks forces through the air tasking order?
• Which term refers to an action that draws the attention of an enemy away from a principal operation?
• When must an observer be able to self-locate to within 10 or 100 meters?
• What should be used as the primary means to determine the targets' location?
• Permissive fire support coordination measures serve to _____ the attack of targets.
• True or False: Precision fire is used for Final Protective Fires (FPF) and destruction missions.
• Which method of attack requires that the intended target or mark is tally/contact/captured by the aircrew?
• What is the primary concern when choosing a site for observation?
• Which FIST employment option keeps FIST assets at the company or troop level?
• Which aircraft sensor posture is when the lead aircraft’s responsibility is the friendly force, while the wing aircraft sanitizes the route in front of the friendly force?
• The M22/M24 binocular reticle pattern is divided into increments of what with shorter hash marks at what increments?
• What defines a target as an entity or object that performs a function for the adversary?
• What type of defensive operation focuses on denying access to designated terrain?
• What is the purpose of a Censor Zone in the context of military operations?
• What does line 7 of the JFO target brief typically denote?
• _____ can be conducted at any place and time friendly forces are in close proximity to enemy forces.
• Which FIST employment option integrates the FIST at the battalion level?
• What brevity term means to oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target?
• True or False: The CFF for an immediate mission is sent in three transmissions.
• What is a maneuver control measure for control and coordination of military operations by land forces?
• What term is used by a joint terminal attack controller (JTAC)/forward air controller (airborne) (FAC(A)) to authorize the aircraft to proceed with the attack profile, but weapons release is not granted yet?
• What asset provides the commander flexibility, range, speed, lethality, precision, and the ability to mass fires at a desired time and place?
• Fire support planning is integrated through targeting and the running estimate, utilizing what tools?
• What is primarily involved in the vertical shift communication to target location?
• Which type of support is given to the supported force as a whole without subdivision?
• What is a type of offensive operation designed to catch or cut off a hostile force attempting to escape, with the aim of destroying it?
• What is the tactical plan for coordinating the fire of a unit?
• Which radar zone specifies an area that the commander wants to attack hostile firing systems from?
• What is the minimum essential information to pass if full BDA cannot be briefed?
• What type of attack is typically executed to displace enemy forces and secure strategic objectives?
• What task involves slowing down the enemy's momentum and inflicting maximum damage without decisive engagement?
• What type of support relationship is assigned to a unit to support the force as a whole while reinforcing another unit?
• What is the first step in the 12 steps of the CAS execution template?
• An OF fan consists of how many radial arms spaced 100 mils apart covering a total of 1,600 mils?
• What is an immediately available prearranged barrier of fire designed to impede enemy movement?
• What refers to the intersection of two or more fire support plans?
• Which rotary-wing attack tactic is performed when the aircraft is stationary or has little forward motion?
• Which control type allows a joint fires observer to engage targets using specific attack restrictions?
• When conducting impact registration, where should the rounds be brought before splitting a 200 meter bracket?
• What brevity term refers to no ordnance remaining?
• What is the purpose of combat identification?
• How many sub-munitions are in the M449 family of APICMs?
• How would you label the FPF when using C Battery, 2-15 FA, a 155mm Howitzer battery?
• Which step in the CAS execution template involves reviewing potential hazards?
• True/False: Army Attack Aviation can perform CAS in support of another component.
• What process is necessary for the success of joint maneuvers during assessments of engagement?
• What actions are executed to mislead adversary decision makers, contributing to the friendly mission?
• Which illumination pattern would you use when an area requires more illumination than can be furnished by one gun illumination?
• Which type of fires are executed to target enemy positions while minimizing risk to friendly units?
• What term describes designing a force or support package of specific size for a particular mission?
• How is the sheaf adjusted for mortars during a registration?
• Which adjustment technique is best suited for an enemy identified at 500 meters when you announce DANGER CLOSE?
• What is the automatic HOB correction for the time portion of the precision registration if the first round is spotted as a graze burst?
• A location imposing specific restrictions on firing beyond which coordination is needed is called what?
• What FDC command will the FO receive after sending a CFF as "At My Command" or "By Round, At My Command"?
• During impact registration, how is the data adjusted if there is an over shot and adjustment is needed?
• What is the additional step that is not required for artillery but may be required for mortars during a registration?
• What is a Fire Support Element primarily responsible for?
• Which support relationship requires a force to support another specific force and respond directly to their requests?
• What form would an observer use to keep track of the rounds and spottings in relation to the registration point?
• What does the term "High Value Target List" refer to in military operations?
• True or False: The AH-64 is equipped with 30mm, 2.75-inch rockets, and Hellfires.
• Which target represents one that meets criteria specific to achieving objectives and is processed through dynamic targeting?
• What command signifies that the number of rounds specified in the fire for effect has been fired?
• True/False: The observer serves as the "eyes" of the indirect fire systems and the FDC serves as the "brain" of the system.
• Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term is used for a nonscheduled fire mission report?
• In which support relationship does a force support another supporting unit?
• What field artillery team is organic to each maneuver battalion to plan and coordinate all available company supporting fires?
• Which of the following is a primary advantage of independent observation in fire support operations?
• What method of control would an observer use to inform the FDC of the total time to engage a target?
• Which naval surface fire support (NSFS) brevity term summarizes naval gunfire support (NGFS) capability when unknown to an NGFS station?
• How many transmissions are sent to the ship for the NSFS call for fire?
• What characteristic of an effective registration is aimed at reducing errors?
• What level of accuracy can an observer achieve when scaling direction from a map using a protractor?
• What are the two methods of attack for close air support (CAS)?
• If you count 14 seconds between the flash and the bang, what is the estimated distance of the impact using the flash to bang method?
• Which fixed wing aircraft is equipped with 30mm, 105mm, and small diameter bombs?
• Which vehicle employment option positions the fire support vehicle on terrain to maximize use of the laser designator and rangefinder while the FSO rides in the commander's vehicle?
• When firing rounds for registration, how do observers ensure accuracy in spotting?
• When should an observer call for FFE in relation to the meter bracket and PER of the weapon?
• Which area designates that fires or their effects are prohibited?
• What rotary-wing movement technique is used when enemy contact is possible?
• Which rotary-wing movement technique is used when enemy contact is imminent?
• A three-dimensional permissive fire support coordination measure used to facilitate integration of fires is referred to as what?
• What organization assists the MAGTF commander in the planning and execution of MAGTF fires?
• A _____ is a number of targets and/or group(s) of targets planned to be fired in a predetermined sequence to support a maneuver operation.
• Which term refers to a bombardment on selected targets that can be brief or prolonged?
• Identifying the method to conceal equipment effectively while on a target mission is part of which category?
• What direction will observers convert their direction to for the CFF requests unless otherwise stated?
• What are the five requirements for achieving accurate first-round fire for effect?
• What does spotting a round target or range correct during registration provide?
• What type of information does Line 9 of the 9-Line CAS Brief provide?
• True or False: Restrictive fire support coordination measures provide safeguards for friendly forces.
• The establishment of which control is essential for coordinating multiple air strikes on a single target by a JTAC/FAC?
• Which radar zone is considered critical for protecting an asset whose loss would jeopardize the mission?
• What mechanism allows for real-time communication and command of air support during operations?
• What is a characteristic of successive bracketing adjustment technique?
• What is the primary goal of a mobile defense?
• When using 10 tubes of 120mm mortars for an FPF, what is the expected length and width?
• True or False: The two types of adjustment that may be employed are area and precision.
• True / False: A quick smoke mission requires the observer to send length, maneuver target line, wind direction, and duration in the call for fire.
• What is the interior angle formed at the target by the intersection of the observer-target and the gun-target lines called?
• Attitude is sent to the nearest how many mils?
• What are the six elements of the call for fire?
• What is the purpose of a Fire Support Coordinator?
• Which brevity term should be used to initiate the use of briefed communication procedures in response to communication jamming?
• How many options are utilized for employing the fire support team?
• Which type of adjustment is primarily used for engaging specific targets accurately?